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4 Sep 2024 19:22:36 EDT (-0400)
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From: Invisible
Subject: Re: Probability question
Date: 8 Feb 2010 07:26:48
Message: <4b700308$1@news.povray.org>
>> Wikipedia claims that for large N, the binomial distribution 
>> approximates the normal distribution.
> 
> Yes, it seems my parameter values fit in ok for this approximation to be 
> pretty accurate.

Central Limit Theorum FTW! :-D

>> I presume it's relatively easy to work out the inverse function for a 
>> normal distribution...
> 
> Excel has a built in function to do this, so this looks like the way to go.

Cool.

So are you *really* trying to estimate coin flips? Or is there some more 
complex problem you're trying to solve here?

Also... I'm impressed that I managed to find an actual solution to this 
using nothing but Wipikedia and an incomplete understanding of probability.

PS. Apparently Wolfram Alpha can plot all these distributions for you if 
you type in something suggestive like "binomial distribution, n=100, p=0.2".


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From: scott
Subject: Re: Probability question
Date: 8 Feb 2010 08:07:27
Message: <4b700c8f$1@news.povray.org>
> So are you *really* trying to estimate coin flips? Or is there some more 
> complex problem you're trying to solve here?

Not really more complex, just a game that is played repeatedly and you have 
a certain % chance of winning (say 57%).  I just want to know if you play 
10,100, 1000 times what is the *likely* number of wins in some kind of worst 
case and best case scenario.  ie it's obviously possible to win every single 
game, but that is *really* unlikely, I want to know how many you'd win with 
90% or 99% confidence.


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From: Invisible
Subject: Re: Probability question
Date: 8 Feb 2010 08:42:55
Message: <4b7014df$1@news.povray.org>
scott wrote:
>> So are you *really* trying to estimate coin flips? Or is there some 
>> more complex problem you're trying to solve here?
> 
> Not really more complex, just a game that is played repeatedly and you 
> have a certain % chance of winning (say 57%).  I just want to know if 
> you play 10,100, 1000 times what is the *likely* number of wins in some 
> kind of worst case and best case scenario.  ie it's obviously possible 
> to win every single game, but that is *really* unlikely, I want to know 
> how many you'd win with 90% or 99% confidence.

Right. So it's ye olde "2SD = 95% confidence" rule then.


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From: Kevin Wampler
Subject: Re: Probability question
Date: 8 Feb 2010 11:07:17
Message: <4b7036b5$1@news.povray.org>
Invisible wrote:
> I presume it's relatively easy to work out the inverse function for a 
> normal distribution...

Actually it's impossible to analytically compute.  Fortunately many 
pieces of software have a built in function to numerically compute it.


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From: Invisible
Subject: Re: Probability question
Date: 8 Feb 2010 11:12:02
Message: <4b7037d2$1@news.povray.org>
>> I presume it's relatively easy to work out the inverse function for a 
>> normal distribution...
> 
> Actually it's impossible to analytically compute.

Define "analytically".

Last time I checked, it's impossible to compute the square root of a 
number "exactly" - and yet it's trivially easy to approximate it to any 
desired accuracy.


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From: Kevin Wampler
Subject: Re: Probability question
Date: 8 Feb 2010 11:22:21
Message: <4b703a3d$1@news.povray.org>
Invisible wrote:
>>> I presume it's relatively easy to work out the inverse function for a 
>>> normal distribution...
>>
>> Actually it's impossible to analytically compute.
> 
> Define "analytically".

As a closed-form expression.  As I said, it's still possible to compute 
numerically.


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From: Invisible
Subject: Re: Probability question
Date: 8 Feb 2010 11:32:41
Message: <4b703ca9$1@news.povray.org>
Kevin Wampler wrote:
> Invisible wrote:
>>>> I presume it's relatively easy to work out the inverse function for 
>>>> a normal distribution...
>>>
>>> Actually it's impossible to analytically compute.
>>
>> Define "analytically".
> 
> As a closed-form expression.  As I said, it's still possible to compute 
> numerically.

And Sqrt[2] erf^-1 (2z - 1) doesn't count because...?


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From: Kevin Wampler
Subject: Re: Probability question
Date: 8 Feb 2010 11:54:18
Message: <4b7041ba$1@news.povray.org>
Invisible wrote:
> Kevin Wampler wrote:
>> Invisible wrote:
>>>>> I presume it's relatively easy to work out the inverse function for 
>>>>> a normal distribution...
>>>>
>>>> Actually it's impossible to analytically compute.
>>>
>>> Define "analytically".
>>
>> As a closed-form expression.  As I said, it's still possible to 
>> compute numerically.
> 
> And Sqrt[2] erf^-1 (2z - 1) doesn't count because...?

erf isn't an elementary function.  See:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Closed-form_expression

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Error_function#Taylor_series


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From: Invisible
Subject: Re: Probability question
Date: 8 Feb 2010 11:58:00
Message: <4b704298$1@news.povray.org>
>>>>>> I presume it's relatively easy to work out the inverse function 
>>>>>> for a normal distribution...
>>>>>
>>>>> Actually it's impossible to analytically compute.
>>>>
>>>> Define "analytically".
>>>
>>> As a closed-form expression.  As I said, it's still possible to 
>>> compute numerically.
>>
>> And Sqrt[2] erf^-1 (2z - 1) doesn't count because...?
> 
> erf isn't an elementary function.  See:
> 
> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Closed-form_expression
> 
> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Error_function#Taylor_series

Right. So what you're actually saying is that you can't compute the 
confidence interval exactly using a finite number of applications of a 
particular arbitrarily chosen set of functions - the elementary functions.


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From: Kevin Wampler
Subject: Re: Probability question
Date: 8 Feb 2010 12:04:53
Message: <4b704435$1@news.povray.org>
Invisible wrote:
>>>> As a closed-form expression.
> 
> Right. So what you're actually saying is that you can't compute the 
> confidence interval exactly using a finite number of applications of a 
> particular arbitrarily chosen set of functions - the elementary functions.

That is indeed the definition.

This obviously doesn't matter for scott's case since he just wants a 
numeric answer and Excel seems to have erf built in, I just wanted to 
point out that far from being "relatively easy" to work out, the 
cumulative distribution function of a Gaussian is generally the first 
function people encounter which is impossible to actually compute in 
closed form (normally this will come up in first or second year calculus 
at some point).  I'll agree that at first glance it certainly *looks* 
like it would be simple to compute though, which is part of why it's 
interesting.


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