Doctor John <j.g### [at] gmailcom> wrote:
> On 26/09/14 20:41, clipka wrote:
> > 
> > I suspect that the original term, like many of the fallacies' names, was
> > pure latin: "argumentum ab ignorantia", literally meaning "argument from
> > non-knowledge", and that it was poorly "anglicanized" later.
> > 
> > Alternatively, it may have been "anglicanized" at a time when the
> > meaning of "ignorance" was closer to the original latin word, rather
> > than the "not knowing shit" meaning it seems to be used for nowadays.
> > 

> I am inclined to agree with your analysis; it's a shame that fewer and
> fewer people seem to have even a passing acquaintance with Latin these days.
> BTW I'm not nit-picking, just correcting someone whose English is way
> better than my German. The word you should have used was 'Anglicized'.
> 'Anglican' refers to the the Church of England.

I bet it was poorly anglicanized as well... ;)

-- 
                                                          - Warp

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