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From: Invisible
Subject: Questions on a friday afternoon
Date: 29 Aug 2008 11:40:09
Message: <48b81859$1@news.povray.org>
Fact: It is impossible to determine whether two arbitrary expressions 
are equivilent.

Question: Is it possible to determine whether one arbitrary expression 
is equivilent to a second, predetermined, expression?

-- 
http://blog.orphi.me.uk/
http://www.zazzle.com/MathematicalOrchid*


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From: somebody
Subject: Re: Questions on a friday afternoon
Date: 29 Aug 2008 11:58:06
Message: <48b81c8e@news.povray.org>
"Invisible" <voi### [at] devnull> wrote in message
news:48b81859$1@news.povray.org...

> Fact: It is impossible to determine whether two arbitrary expressions
> are equivilent.

> Question: Is it possible to determine whether one arbitrary expression
> is equivilent to a second, predetermined, expression?

Of course not. If it's not clear, think of the one arbitrary expression as
expressing equivalency of two arbitrary expressions.


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From: Warp
Subject: Re: Questions on a friday afternoon
Date: 29 Aug 2008 13:37:39
Message: <48b833e3@news.povray.org>
Invisible <voi### [at] devnull> wrote:
> Fact: It is impossible to determine whether two arbitrary expressions 
> are equivilent.

  Define expression.

  (And for that matter, define "equivilent".)

-- 
                                                          - Warp


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From: Nicolas Alvarez
Subject: Re: Questions on a friday afternoon
Date: 29 Aug 2008 15:51:40
Message: <48b8534c@news.povray.org>
Warp wrote:
>   (And for that matter, define "equivilent".)

equivilent n.: typo of equivalent.


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From: Orchid XP v8
Subject: Re: Questions on a friday afternoon
Date: 29 Aug 2008 15:59:05
Message: <48b85509$1@news.povray.org>
>> Fact: It is impossible to determine whether two arbitrary expressions 
>> are equivilent.
> 
>   Define expression.
> 
>   (And for that matter, define "equivilent".)

It is impossible to determine whether two arbitrary terms in the untyped 
lambda calculus are extensionally equivilent.

But is it possible to determine if some arbitrary term matches a 
predetermined one? (For example, the Church numeral zero.)

-- 
http://blog.orphi.me.uk/
http://www.zazzle.com/MathematicalOrchid*


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From: Warp
Subject: Re: Questions on a friday afternoon
Date: 29 Aug 2008 16:08:22
Message: <48b85735@news.povray.org>
Orchid XP v8 <voi### [at] devnull> wrote:
> It is impossible to determine whether two arbitrary terms in the untyped 
> lambda calculus are extensionally equivilent.

  You still haven't defined what "equivilent" means.

-- 
                                                          - Warp


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From: Orchid XP v8
Subject: Re: Questions on a friday afternoon
Date: 31 Aug 2008 03:56:16
Message: <48ba4ea0$1@news.povray.org>
Warp wrote:
> Orchid XP v8 <voi### [at] devnull> wrote:
>> It is impossible to determine whether two arbitrary terms in the untyped 
>> lambda calculus are extensionally equivilent.
> 
>   You still haven't defined what "equivilent" means.

Two functions are "equivilent" if, given the same arguments, they 
produce the same result. (For all possible arguments.)

-- 
http://blog.orphi.me.uk/
http://www.zazzle.com/MathematicalOrchid*


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From: Warp
Subject: Re: Questions on a friday afternoon
Date: 31 Aug 2008 04:41:29
Message: <48ba5939@news.povray.org>
Orchid XP v8 <voi### [at] devnull> wrote:
> Warp wrote:
> > Orchid XP v8 <voi### [at] devnull> wrote:
> >> It is impossible to determine whether two arbitrary terms in the untyped 
> >> lambda calculus are extensionally equivilent.
> > 
> >   You still haven't defined what "equivilent" means.

> Two functions are "equivilent" if, given the same arguments, they 
> produce the same result. (For all possible arguments.)

  No dictionary I have tried knows that word.

  Are you sure you don't mean "equivalent"?

-- 
                                                          - Warp


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From: Stephen
Subject: Re: Questions on a friday afternoon
Date: 31 Aug 2008 05:17:10
Message: <rbokb45ai0uh35kgoirc7bqdmtlkontgqh@4ax.com>
On 31 Aug 2008 04:41:29 -0400, Warp <war### [at] tagpovrayorg> wrote:

>
>> Two functions are "equivilent" if, given the same arguments, they 
>> produce the same result. (For all possible arguments.)
>
>  No dictionary I have tried knows that word.
>
>  Are you sure you don't mean "equivalent"?

A nod to a blind horse. ;)
I find that in a lot of posts on the internet you have to say to yourself. "Is
that a typo or what did he mean?" Especially when communicating between
different versions of English or generations.
 
"Equivilent" is a phonetic spelling of "equivalent" in certain areas of the UK.
I.e. that is how it is pronounced.
-- 

Regards
     Stephen


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From: Warp
Subject: Re: Questions on a friday afternoon
Date: 31 Aug 2008 06:32:49
Message: <48ba7351@news.povray.org>
Stephen <mcavoysAT@aoldotcom> wrote:
> A nod to a blind horse. ;)
> I find that in a lot of posts on the internet you have to say to yourself. "Is
> that a typo or what did he mean?" Especially when communicating between
> different versions of English or generations.
>  
> "Equivilent" is a phonetic spelling of "equivalent" in certain areas of the UK.
> I.e. that is how it is pronounced.

  How do you pronounce "equivilent"? More precisely, how do you pronounce
the wrongly-written "i" there? Do you pronounce it like in the word "life"?
Or in the word "lit"? Or in the word "partial"? Why?

-- 
                                                          - Warp


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