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Orchid XP v8 <voi### [at] dev null> wrote:
> Warp wrote:
> > Orchid XP v8 <voi### [at] devnull> wrote:
> >> It is impossible to determine whether two arbitrary terms in the untyped
> >> lambda calculus are extensionally equivilent.
> >
> > You still haven't defined what "equivilent" means.
> Two functions are "equivilent" if, given the same arguments, they
> produce the same result. (For all possible arguments.)
No dictionary I have tried knows that word.
Are you sure you don't mean "equivalent"?
--
- Warp
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On 31 Aug 2008 04:41:29 -0400, Warp <war### [at] tagpovrayorg> wrote:
>
>> Two functions are "equivilent" if, given the same arguments, they
>> produce the same result. (For all possible arguments.)
>
> No dictionary I have tried knows that word.
>
> Are you sure you don't mean "equivalent"?
A nod to a blind horse. ;)
I find that in a lot of posts on the internet you have to say to yourself. "Is
that a typo or what did he mean?" Especially when communicating between
different versions of English or generations.
"Equivilent" is a phonetic spelling of "equivalent" in certain areas of the UK.
I.e. that is how it is pronounced.
--
Regards
Stephen
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Stephen <mcavoysAT@aoldotcom> wrote:
> A nod to a blind horse. ;)
> I find that in a lot of posts on the internet you have to say to yourself. "Is
> that a typo or what did he mean?" Especially when communicating between
> different versions of English or generations.
>
> "Equivilent" is a phonetic spelling of "equivalent" in certain areas of the UK.
> I.e. that is how it is pronounced.
How do you pronounce "equivilent"? More precisely, how do you pronounce
the wrongly-written "i" there? Do you pronounce it like in the word "life"?
Or in the word "lit"? Or in the word "partial"? Why?
--
- Warp
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On 31-Aug-08 12:32, Warp wrote:
> Stephen <mcavoysAT@aoldotcom> wrote:
>> A nod to a blind horse. ;)
>> I find that in a lot of posts on the internet you have to say to yourself. "Is
>> that a typo or what did he mean?" Especially when communicating between
>> different versions of English or generations.
>>
>> "Equivilent" is a phonetic spelling of "equivalent" in certain areas of the UK.
>> I.e. that is how it is pronounced.
>
> How do you pronounce "equivilent"? More precisely, how do you pronounce
> the wrongly-written "i" there? Do you pronounce it like in the word "life"?
> Or in the word "lit"? Or in the word "partial"?
I am not from the MK region, but my guess would be like 'lit'
> Why?
Under influence of the 'qui' before that.
Phonetic spelling is quite common in my experience. I even sometimes do
it myself. Mainly late at night and then in the morning I think: why on
earth did you do something that stupid. Actually I am surprised that
most people do so often spell correctly given the loose connection
between spelling and pronunciation in English. Where eye misspelled
pronunciation butt where corrected bye the spelling checker. Perhaps we
shoot rephrase you're question too: Why does Andy still not use a
spelling checker for his e-mail?
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On 31 Aug 2008 06:32:49 -0400, Warp <war### [at] tagpovrayorg> wrote:
>Stephen <mcavoysAT@aoldotcom> wrote:
>> A nod to a blind horse. ;)
>> I find that in a lot of posts on the internet you have to say to yourself. "Is
>> that a typo or what did he mean?" Especially when communicating between
>> different versions of English or generations.
>>
>> "Equivilent" is a phonetic spelling of "equivalent" in certain areas of the UK.
>> I.e. that is how it is pronounced.
>
> How do you pronounce "equivilent"? More precisely, how do you pronounce
>the wrongly-written "i" there? Do you pronounce it like in the word "life"?
>Or in the word "lit"? Or in the word "partial"? Why?
I'm not from MK either. ;) But I pronounce the wrongly-written "i" the same way
as I pronounce the first "i" but shorter, as in lit. Assuming, of course that
the "i" in lit is pronounced like "it".
I think?
Oh! Ee-quiv-i-lent or ee-kwiv-i-lent. BTW
--
Regards
Stephen
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Stephen <mcavoysAT@aoldotcom> wrote:
> I'm not from MK either. ;) But I pronounce the wrongly-written "i" the same way
> as I pronounce the first "i" but shorter, as in lit. Assuming, of course that
> the "i" in lit is pronounced like "it".
That's not what I hear from the voice sample here:
http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/equivalent
I don't remember ever hearing it pronounced otherwise...
--
- Warp
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On 31 Aug 2008 08:34:45 -0400, Warp <war### [at] tagpovrayorg> wrote:
>Stephen <mcavoysAT@aoldotcom> wrote:
>> I'm not from MK either. ;) But I pronounce the wrongly-written "i" the same way
>> as I pronounce the first "i" but shorter, as in lit. Assuming, of course that
>> the "i" in lit is pronounced like "it".
>
> That's not what I hear from the voice sample here:
>http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/equivalent
>
Yes, that is the Received Pronunciation if you take away the American accent :)
Having said all that, it does not excuse Andrew from bad spelling and laziness
in not spell checking. But it goes a fair way to his misunderstanding why you
asked what "equivilent" means. It probably read like the equivalent of an
allophone
> I don't remember ever hearing it pronounced otherwise...
Come to the UK, travel away from the "home counties" and I will be surprised if
you can still say that.
Who said that life would be easy? :)
--
Regards
Stephen
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On 31-Aug-08 14:51, Stephen wrote:
> On 31 Aug 2008 08:34:45 -0400, Warp <war### [at] tagpovrayorg> wrote:
>
>> Stephen <mcavoysAT@aoldotcom> wrote:
>>> I'm not from MK either. ;) But I pronounce the wrongly-written "i" the same way
>>> as I pronounce the first "i" but shorter, as in lit. Assuming, of course that
>>> the "i" in lit is pronounced like "it".
>> That's not what I hear from the voice sample here:
>> http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/equivalent
>>
>
> Yes, that is the Received Pronunciation if you take away the American accent :)
> Having said all that, it does not excuse Andrew from bad spelling and laziness
> in not spell checking. But it goes a fair way to his misunderstanding why you
> asked what "equivilent" means. It probably read like the equivalent of an
> allophone
>
>> I don't remember ever hearing it pronounced otherwise...
>
> Come to the UK, travel away from the "home counties" and I will be surprised if
> you can still say that.
Most people assume for some reason that because English was originally
spoken in the UK that the pronunciation there would be more alike there
then abroad. In fact it is the other way around.
Business/scientific/international English is much more uniform than in
the UK of the US. In fact Scotsmen and Texans and ... who are traveling
a lot abroad have to learn to speak the international English just as
well (and some fail).
What is particularly interesting is that most people who assume English
to be the same everywhere in the UK and the US do know that there are a
lot of local (and nearly incomprehensible) accents in their own language.
(BTW I am not suggesting that Warp suffers from this misconception, it
is just something that surprises me every time)
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On Sun, 31 Aug 2008 15:06:44 +0200, andrel <a_l### [at] hotmailcom> wrote:
>
>Most people assume for some reason that because English was originally
>spoken in the UK that the pronunciation there would be more alike there
>then abroad. In fact it is the other way around.
I agree with what you wrote.
Another thing most people do not know is that in areas of Pennsylvania, their
spoken English is purer (citation required) than in most places in England.
(Also what is pure?)
It surprised me when I worked in Australia that the difference in regional
accents is minimal, as it is in America. I'm not saying that there is no
difference but compared to the UK there is little to complain about.
(Stop me if you've heard this before) I once spent an afternoon with and elderly
relative of a friend who lived 20 miles outside of Aberdeen. I could not make
out more than one word in three, his dialect was so foreign. Then there are
Yorkshire men who still "thee and thou" in normal speech. In Summerset the local
English can be understood in Northern Spain. I was able to understand quite a
few words written and spoken in the Netherlands, when I was there.
English is a mongrel language at home but abroad there is less deviation IMO.
--
Regards
Stephen
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> It surprised me when I worked in Australia that the difference in regional
> accents is minimal, as it is in America. I'm not saying that there is no
> difference but compared to the UK there is little to complain about.
> (Stop me if you've heard this before) I once spent an afternoon with and
> elderly
> relative of a friend who lived 20 miles outside of Aberdeen. I could not
> make
> out more than one word in three, his dialect was so foreign. Then there
> are
> Yorkshire men who still "thee and thou" in normal speech. In Summerset the
> local
> English can be understood in Northern Spain. I was able to understand
> quite a
> few words written and spoken in the Netherlands, when I was there.
> English is a mongrel language at home but abroad there is less deviation
> IMO.
I heard that most Germans who come to Bavaria don't understand much, so me
with my 5 years of German at school didn't stand a chance!
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