=?ISO-8859-1?Q?J=F6rg_=27Yadgar=27_Bleimann?= <yaz### [at] gmxde> wrote:
> Am I, at all, right to assume that the average of vectors
> <x1, y1, z1>, <x2, y2, z2>,...,<xn, yn, zn> simply is
> <(x1+x2+...+xn)/n, (y1+y2+...+yn)/n, (z1+z2+...+zn)/n> - or am I barking
>   up a totally wrong tree?

yes it's fine (i think), as long as the normals you add
are normalized! (otherwise long normals contribute more
to the average than shorter normals)
imagine stacking all normals on top of each other (in 3D),
you end up with a funy line that can end anywhere, so the
result will not be normalized by dividing it by the number
of normals you added together.
the end of the stack of normals may end op at <0,0,0>, witch
can't be normalized, because it does not have any direction.
(like when you average to normals with exactly opposite direction)

jaap.

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