Jim Henderson wrote:
> 
> Warp's done the same thing here as well - and in a small sample, sure, I 
> can prove that over 50% of people are of above average intelligence as 
> well by picking numbers that prove that.  That doesn't prove anything 
> with regards to a large population distribution, though.
> 

Perhaps the difference is that Warp's making a theoretical point while 
you're making a practical one?  It's certainly true in a theoretical 
sense that there can be distributions where the mean is different than 
the median even with many samples (which is what Warp is saying), but 
for the particular case of IQ this doesn't seem to be the case (which is 
what I think you're saying).

Did I understand correctly?

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