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> Sure. But the Romans didn't have printing presses. And, as I say, back
> then words didn't have a set spelling; that only came in after printing.
> So that doesn't explain how a long-dead language can influence the
> spelling of a modern one.
Of course it does! When you invade a country you pick up some of the local
lingo too (and maybe pronounce it slightly differently), which leads to
English being a mix of various languages. I don't see what the printing
press has to do with anything, people still spoke and wrote before that!
I'm sure you can research where various words came from, but I suspect "kn-"
type words (eg knot) came from the Saxons as there are similar words in
German where the "k" is voiced. "Psy-" type words are Greek, if you
investigated the Greek language you'd probably find out why they are
spelt/pronounced like that.
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