Francois LE COAT wrote:
> t in [0,2*Pi], y in ]-1,1[ then bell curve is
> 
>     "cos^2(t)+sin^2(t)=(4+ath(-y))^2"
> 
> ath() is hyperbolic arctangent means inverse of hyperbolic tangent th().
> 
> Does it suits you ?
> 
> Regards,
> 

Is this a correct transformation?

0 = tanh(sqrt(cos(t)^2 + sin(t)^2) - 4) + y

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