>> I'm attempting to add Slovak to my list of badly-spoken languages and a
>> thought occurred to me - Are the auxiliary verbs (to be, to have) always
>> irregular in all languages or just the Indo-European ones or just the
>> ones I've come across?
>
> It makes sense that they are, since they're usually the oldest and most
> common verbs used. A bit like a Huffman coding for language :-)
And I forgot to add, in Japanese they're regular.
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