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On 31-12-2009 17:49, Warp wrote:
> andrel <a_l### [at] hotmail com> wrote:
>>> At least the racism part I view as completely ludicrous.
>
>> Ok fair enough. Seems like you find things that happen ludicrous. Not my
>> problem.
>
> That would be a "cum hoc ergo propter hoc" fallacy, or in more mundane
> terms, "correlation implies causation" fallacy.
>
> The United States is a capitalist country. There is racism in the United
> States. Hence capitalism causes racism.
>
> Sorry, you fail.
No, sorry. I never said that capitalism causes racism. I think I won't
mention that you again distorted a remark from someone else and tried to
ridicule that. No point really.
> Could you please point out a country where capitalism *demonstrably* has
> caused racism (because, in your own words, these things "happen"), rather
> than just both phenomena appearing in the same country without there
> necessarily being a direct correlation between the two?
>
> (And please don't tell me that you understood what I wrote as meaning
> "racism doesn't happen, that's ludicrous.")
I didn't understand that, so I won't tell that.
>>> Capitalism does
>>> not lead to racism any more than any other possible form of economy. People
>>> will or will not be racists regardless of what the economic model of the
>>> country might happen to be. It's not like capitalism would somehow induce
>>> racism (while other economic models don't).
>
>> totally irrelevant, because gregjohn did not make that claim.
>
> Of course he did. He talked about how capitalism and free commerce could
> lead to things like racist behavior. That was the whole point.
>
> If he didn't make that claim, then what did he claim, in your opinion?
>
IMHO just that: if there is already racism, capitalism might lead to
companies that capitalize on that.
I think in a later mail he said that he knew of instances where that
actually happened. In his post that started this 'discussion' he did
only said that in his opinion it would be a logical consequence.
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