scott <sco### [at] scottcom> wrote:
> >  I really can't understand why you are so fixated with that question.
> > I never doubted or denied its veracity. My reply clearly implied that it
> > is indeed so.

> So you would also agree then that 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + ... equals 1 with 
> infinitely many terms?  You see where this is going?

  I agree with it, and no, I don't see your point.

> You are trying to equate the probabilities of 1/infinity with 0/infinity, 
> they cannot always be treated as the same (in some situations they can be).

> Imagine choosing numbers between 0 and 1.  Getting exactly 0.5 (or any other 
> number between 0 and 1) has a probability of 1/infinity, getting exactly 1.5 
> has a probability of 0/infinity.  "Normally" they would be the same, but if 
> you say something like "what is the probability of getting *any* value 
> between 0 and 1" or "what is the probability of getting exactly 0.5 after 
> infinitely many tries" then they are not the same.

  I honestly don't understand.

-- 
                                                          - Warp

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