>  I really can't understand why you are so fixated with that question.
> I never doubted or denied its veracity. My reply clearly implied that it
> is indeed so.

So you would also agree then that 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + ... equals 1 with 
infinitely many terms?  You see where this is going?

>  You don't have to try an infinite number of times to get a value from
> a continuous range. You only have to try once. And the value you get had
> a probability of zero of being chosen. Yet it was chosen.

You are trying to equate the probabilities of 1/infinity with 0/infinity, 
they cannot always be treated as the same (in some situations they can be).

Imagine choosing numbers between 0 and 1.  Getting exactly 0.5 (or any other 
number between 0 and 1) has a probability of 1/infinity, getting exactly 1.5 
has a probability of 0/infinity.  "Normally" they would be the same, but if 
you say something like "what is the probability of getting *any* value 
between 0 and 1" or "what is the probability of getting exactly 0.5 after 
infinitely many tries" then they are not the same.

Post a reply to this message