Warp wrote:
> probability *approaches* 1, it never becomes it.

I think if you mean "the probability as the time approaches infinity" then 
yes. I think if you look at the actual result with infinite time provided, 
you get the probability 1.  It's not like you have different probabilities; 
there's only one situation under consideration: an infinite amount of time.

Given that truly random sequences are normal, and in a normal sequence every 
block of a particular length occurs with equal probability, and we're 
talking an infinite sequence, it follows that the bard is in there 
somewhere.  If I'm not mistaken about the math of it.

-- 
   Darren New, San Diego CA, USA (PST)
   There's no CD like OCD, there's no CD I knoooow!

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