scott wrote:
>> Now, if we perform K trails, the probability of seeing all the balls 
>> is (N! + (K-N)!) / N^N. (Assuming K >= N.)
> 
> Can you explain how you got that formula?

Intuitively, assuming N trials the formula is just N! / N^N, so if we 
add (K-N) extra trails, you get the formula above.

On reflection, I'm not sure that's actually correct...

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