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Warp wrote:
> So why does it interfere with itself when there are two slits but not
> when there is only one?
Actually, it doesn't interfere with itself if you measure some other
particle that was entangled with the particle that either did or didn't
go thru the two slits. So you don't have to touch that actual electron
at all.
If it was just one regular physical macroscopical
> particle it wouldn't matter how many slits there are: If it goes through
> one of them, it just goes through one of them, that's it. It doesn't even
> "know" that there are other slits.
> However, when there are two slits, the electron passes through and starts
> interfering with itself, as if it has passed through both and changed
> direction in different ways.
>
> How else can this be explained? How does the electron "know" that there's
> another slit so that it "knows" to start interfering with itself, other than
> actually going through the other slit as well?
>
> (I believe this has something to do with wave-particle duality: In the
> double-slit experiment the wave nature of the electron shows up: The wave
> goes through both slits and starts interfering with itself.)
>
>>> So you are saying that, even though the only possible explanation for
>>> interference patterns is that the electron passed through both slits,
>>> there's still no evidence of that?
>
>> Yes. What makes you think that the only *possible* explanation is that
>> the electron passed through both slits?
>
> What is the other explanation?
>
>>> If there's "no evidence", what do you call the interference pattern?
>>> "Non-evidence"?
>
>> Interference.
>
> The interference can be explained with the electron passing through both
> slits at the same time. Ergo the interference is evidence of that happening.
> (Note that "evidence" is not the same thing as "proof".)
>
--
Darren New / San Diego, CA, USA (PST)
"That's pretty. Where's that?"
"It's the Age of Channelwood."
"We should go there on vacation some time."
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