POV-Ray : Newsgroups : povray.off-topic : Infinite sequences and probability : Re: Infinite sequences and probability Server Time
29 Sep 2024 17:21:22 EDT (-0400)
  Re: Infinite sequences and probability  
From: Mueen Nawaz
Date: 28 Apr 2009 18:06:48
Message: <49f77df8$1@news.povray.org>
Kevin Wampler wrote:
> I did like the Cantor set analogy by the way.  I didn't forsee it when I
> was reading your post and was delighted when you pointed it out.

	It popped into my head while reading Darren and Tim argue in the other
thread. Delighted me too to see the relationship.

>>>     lim_{n->inf} a^n = 0 if 0 <= a < 1
>>
>>     (Incidentally, I'm not sure I understand your limit. What is 'a' and
>> why is it fixed?
> 
> For base m a would be (m-1)/m -- the probability that a single given
> digit of the random sequence doesn't contain a 1 in base m.

	Ah, I get it.

> I'm enveious you had an integration theory class that got into measure
> theory.  I don't recall such a course being available back when I was
> taking math classes, but it would have been pretty fun had there been.

	Well, I think it's standard in the first semester of analysis at the
grad level. Some good schools probably do it at the undergrad. I learned
this stuff only recently - learning as I go along.

-- 
Lisa: Oedipus killed his father and married his mother.
Homer: Who payed for THAT wedding?


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                       >>>>>>mue### [at] nawazorg<<<<<<
                                   anl


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